Consider the following “justification” that the Fibonacci function, F(n) is O(n): Base case (n ≤ 2): F(1) = 1 and F(2) = 2. Induction step (n > 2): Assume claim true for n′
What is wrong with this “justification”?
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Show that if d(n) is O(f(n)) and e(n) is O(g(n)), then d(n) + e(n) is O(f(n) + g(n)).